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NEW QUESTION # 185
What is the primary purpose of malware remediation?
- A. To prevent malware infections
- B. To remove or neutralize malware infections
- C. To detect malware threats
- D. To create a backup of infected systems
Answer: B
Explanation:
Malware remediation aims to remove or neutralize malware infections from compromised systems. It involves various techniques, such as scanning and cleaning the infected files, removing malicious software, and repairing damages caused by the malware. The goal is to restore the system's integrity, security, and functionality by eliminating the presence and impact of malware.
NEW QUESTION # 186
Which of the following best defines the concept of preserving digital evidence?
- A. Encrypting the digital evidence to prevent unauthorized access.
- B. Destroying digital evidence after analysis to save storage space.
- C. Gathering all digital evidence in a physical location.
- D. Making an exact copy of the digital evidence for analysis.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Preserving digital evidence involves creating an exact copy of the original evidence to be used for analysis. This ensures that the original evidence remains intact and uncontaminated, while allowing investigators to work with a replicated version. It is crucial to prevent any modifications to the original evidence, as any changes can compromise the accuracy and integrity of the investigation.
NEW QUESTION # 187
Which of the following involves dividing a network into smaller, more manageable segments?
- A. IP addressing
- B. Subnetting
- C. VLAN configuration
- D. DHCP configuration
Answer: B
Explanation:
Subnetting is the process of dividing a network into smaller subnetworks, called subnets or subnetworks. It helps in improving network performance, optimizing address allocation, and enhancing network security. Subnetting is typically done by using a subnet mask to determine the network and host portions of an IP address.
NEW QUESTION # 188
Which of the following is a best practice for proactively managing and securing communication before, during, and after an event?
- A. Conducting regular security audits
- B. Limiting access to essential personnel only
- C. Regularly updating antivirus software
- D. Encrypting sensitive data at rest and in transit
Answer: D
Explanation:
Encrypting sensitive data at rest and in transit is a best practice for securing communication before, during, and after an event. Encryption ensures that data is encoded in a way that only authorized parties can access and understand it. By encrypting sensitive data, even if it is intercepted by unauthorized individuals, they would not be able to make sense of the information without the encryption key, thus maintaining its confidentiality and integrity during transmission and storage.
NEW QUESTION # 189
How can vulnerabilities be discovered in a network or system?
- A. By implementing strong cryptographic protocols.
- B. By monitoring network traffic.
- C. By conducting penetration testing.
- D. By using firewalls and antivirus software.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Penetration testing, also known as ethical hacking, is a method used to discover vulnerabilities in a network or system. It involves simulating an attack on the system to identify weaknesses and potential entry points for attackers. Penetration testing can help organizations uncover vulnerabilities before they can be exploited by malicious actors.
NEW QUESTION # 190
Which encryption method is used to secure data while it is being actively used and processed by an application?
- A. Asymmetric encryption
- B. Homomorphic encryption
- C. Hash encryption
- D. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Homomorphic encryption is a form of encryption that allows computations to be performed on encrypted data without decrypting it. This method enables the secure processing and manipulation of data while it is in use by an application or system. Homomorphic encryption is particularly useful in scenarios where privacy is a concern, such as in cloud computing or data analytics.
NEW QUESTION # 191
What is the primary purpose of packet captures in identifying suspicious events in a cybersecurity context?
- A. To monitor network devices and perform vulnerability assessments.
- B. To backup network configurations and restore them in case of failure.
- C. To analyze network traffic and identify potential indicators of compromise.
- D. To encrypt network traffic and secure sensitive information.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Packet captures are used to capture and record network traffic, allowing cybersecurity professionals to inspect the packets and analyze the network traffic for potential indicators of compromise (IOCs). By examining the packets, analysts can check for suspicious patterns or anomalies, identify malicious payloads, or detect unauthorized access attempts. Packet captures are a valuable tool in incident response, as they help identify and investigate suspicious events in a network.
NEW QUESTION # 192
What is the purpose of incident response planning in cybersecurity?
- A. To detect and respond to cybersecurity incidents in a timely and effective manner
- B. To prevent cybersecurity incidents from occurring
- C. To conduct forensic investigations after cybersecurity incidents
- D. To recover from cybersecurity incidents and restore normal business operations
Answer: A
Explanation:
Incident response planning in cybersecurity focuses on establishing processes and procedures to detect, respond to, and mitigate the impact of cybersecurity incidents. It ensures that organizations have the necessary measures in place to identify incidents promptly, contain them, and minimize the potential damage. The goal is to respond to incidents in a timely and effective manner to protect sensitive data and maintain business continuity.
NEW QUESTION # 193
Which of the following updates is responsible for ensuring proper communication between hardware devices and the operating system?
- A. Firmware updates
- B. Device drivers
- C. Application updates
- D. Windows Update
Answer: B
Explanation:
Device drivers are software programs that facilitate communication between hardware devices (such as printers, graphics cards, or network adapters) and the operating system. Updating device drivers is important as it can enhance compatibility, performance, and resolve known issues or security vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 194
Which network security concept focuses on limiting network access based on user roles and responsibilities?
- A. Network segmentation
- B. Vulnerability scanning
- C. Intrusion detection
- D. Access control
Answer: D
Explanation:
Access control is a network security concept that focuses on limiting network access based on user roles and responsibilities. It ensures that users are granted appropriate permissions and privileges based on their job functions. Access control mechanisms can include username/password authentication, multi-factor authentication, and role-based access control (RBAC).
NEW QUESTION # 195
Which of the following features of the Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) allows network administrators to define policies for controlling access to network resources based on user identities and user or group attributes?
- A. Network Access Profiles
- B. Profiling
- C. Identity Firewall
- D. TrustSec
Answer: B
Explanation:
Option 1: Network Access Profiles: Network Access Profiles in Cisco ISE define the behavior of network devices when they are accessed by authenticated users. They are a set of policies that determine how network resources are allocated to users or user groups, and what level of access they have.
Option 2: Identity Firewall: Cisco ISE's Identity Firewall feature enables network administrators to apply firewall policies based on user identities. It allows for granular control over network access and can enforce allow, deny, or redirect actions based on user attributes.
Option 3: Profiling: This is the correct answer. Cisco ISE's Profiling feature is used to dynamically classify endpoints connecting to the network based on their characteristics, such as their MAC addresses, IP addresses, and DHCP options. This information is then used to enforce access policies.
Option 4: TrustSe TrustSec is a Cisco security solution that provides secure access control across the network infrastructure. While TrustSec is related to identity and access management, it is not a feature of Cisco ISE specifically.
NEW QUESTION # 196
What is an insider threat?
- A. A security breach caused by an external attacker.
- B. The accidental disclosure of sensitive information.
- C. A threat posed by an individual with authorized access to an organization's systems and data.
- D. A vulnerability in an organization's network infrastructure.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Insider threats refer to risks and vulnerabilities that arise from individuals who have authorized access to an organization's systems, networks, or data. These individuals may intentionally or unintentionally cause harm, such as stealing confidential information, sabotaging systems, or disclosing sensitive data to unauthorized entities.
NEW QUESTION # 197
Which type of encryption protects data while it is being transmitted over a network?
- A. Asymmetric encryption
- B. Hash encryption
- C. Symmetric encryption
- D. Transport Layer Security (TLS)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a cryptographic protocol that provides secure communication over a network. It ensures the confidentiality and integrity of data while in transit by encrypting it. TLS is commonly used to protect sensitive information during online transactions, such as credit card numbers or login credentials.
NEW QUESTION # 198
Which of the following is a hardware or software-based network security device that monitors incoming and outgoing network traffic and decides whether to allow or block specific traffic based on predefined security rules?
- A. ACL
- B. NAC
- C. Firewall
- D. VPN
Answer: C
Explanation:
A firewall is a hardware or software-based network security device that acts as a barrier between internal and external networks. It monitors network traffic and applies predefined rules to determine whether to allow or block specific traffic. Firewalls are commonly used to protect network infrastructure and prevent unauthorized access by filtering out potentially harmful or suspicious traffic.
NEW QUESTION # 199
What is the purpose of using an application firewall in a cybersecurity setup?
- A. To encrypt network traffic between applications
- B. To block malicious incoming requests and attacks aimed at the application
- C. To perform vulnerability scanning of applications
- D. To increase the speed and performance of applications
Answer: B
Explanation:
An application firewall, also known as a web application firewall (WAF) or application-level firewall, is designed to protect web applications from various attacks, such as cross-site scripting (XSS), SQL injection, and distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks. It analyzes the incoming traffic and blocks malicious requests, protecting the application and its underlying infrastructure. Encryption, speed enhancement, and vulnerability scanning are not primary functions of an application firewall.
NEW QUESTION # 200
Which command-line tool is used for network traffic capture and packet analysis?
- A. tcpdump
- B. ping
- C. netstat
- D. nslookup
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct command-line tool for network traffic capture and packet analysis is tcpdump. It captures packets that are transmitted on a network interface, allowing you to analyze the traffic, detect potential security threats, and understand the behavior of network communications.
NEW QUESTION # 201
Why is it important to regularly update software and firmware in a network or system?
- A. To ensure compatibility with different devices.
- B. To prevent vulnerabilities from being discovered.
- C. To improve the performance of the network or system.
- D. To patch known vulnerabilities and security flaws.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Regularly updating software and firmware in a network or system is crucial to patch known vulnerabilities and security flaws. Software vendors frequently release updates to address any identified vulnerabilities and provide necessary security patches. By keeping systems up to date, organizations can mitigate the risk of exploitation through known vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 202
Vulnerability refers to:
- A. The potential for loss or harm as a result of a threat exploiting a vulnerability.
- B. The likelihood of a security incident occurring.
- C. The exploitation of a vulnerability by a threat.
- D. The degree to which a threat is capable of causing damage.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Vulnerability refers to a weakness or flaw in a system that can be exploited by a threat. It is the state of being exposed to the possibility of being attacked or harmed.
NEW QUESTION # 203
Which of the following is an example of a detective control?
- A. Security information and event management (SIEM) system
- B. Encryption
- C. Patch management
- D. Access control list (ACL)
Answer: A
Explanation:
A SIEM system is a detective control that collects and analyzes security event logs from various sources to identify and detect potential security incidents. It provides real-time monitoring and alerts for suspicious activities, enabling organizations to identify and respond to security events effectively.
NEW QUESTION # 204
Which of the following is a common authentication protocol used in wireless networks?
- A. FTP
- B. WPA
- C. SSH
- D. SMTP
Answer: B
Explanation:
WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) is a widely used authentication protocol for securing wireless networks. It provides stronger security than the older WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) protocol by utilizing encryption algorithms and dynamic key generation. WPA offers better protection against unauthorized access and helps ensure the confidentiality and integrity of wireless communications.
NEW QUESTION # 205
Which of the following is an essential component of information security assessments?
- A. User training
- B. Incident response planning
- C. Penetration testing
- D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Information security assessments involve assessing the security posture of an IT system. Penetration testing, which involves simulating attacks to identify vulnerabilities, is an important component of such assessments. Additionally, user training is vital because human error or lack of awareness can often be a weak point in security. Understanding how to recognize and respond to potential threats is crucial. Lastly, incident response planning is essential to ensure that the organization is prepared to handle and mitigate any security incidents effectively. Therefore, all the options mentioned in the
NEW QUESTION # 206
What is the purpose of multi-factor authentication?
- A. To restrict access to certain users by requiring additional authorization
- B. To simplify the login process by only requiring one form of identification
- C. To prevent unauthorized access by encrypting user credentials
- D. To provide multiple layers of security by requiring users to provide more than one form of identification
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option 1: Correct. Multi-factor authentication adds an extra layer of security by requiring users to provide more than one form of identification, such as a password and a fingerprint or a security token.
Option 2: Incorrect. Multi-factor authentication does not simplify the login process, but rather adds an additional step to verify the user's identity.
Option 3: Incorrect. While multi-factor authentication can help restrict access to certain users, its main purpose is to provide an extra layer of security rather than additional authorization.
Option 4: Incorrect. While encryption is an important security measure, multi-factor authentication is specifically designed to provide multiple layers of security by requiring multiple forms of identification.
NEW QUESTION # 207
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